You need to research your Scripture more closely. I post this regularly, as it needs to be understood by those of the Christian faith: There are 6 main places in the Bible where the English is interpreted to speak against homosexuality. The first two are in the OT book of Leviticus, 18:22 and 20:13.. In Leviticus 18:22, the Hebrew says, “with a male you shall not lie as with a woman”. Where the translation says ‘male’, the Hebrew word zakar is used, which was normally used to denote a younger male, instead of a mature man, which is the Hebrew word ‘ish’. This verse can be interpreted, “With a young male you shall not lie. As with a woman”. Notice again the way the Hebrew is worded. It says ‘male’ and not man. Why say male and woman instead of male/female or man/woman? The Hebrew makes a distinction here, which can infer that zakar (male) can mean a young male. Basically don’t lie with a young boy as with a mature woman. An older man taking a young man child as a sexual partner is called pederasty. This is very similar to verse 20:13 which I’ll discuss later. The next two places are in 1Cor 6:9 and 1Tim 1:10 where the Greek word arsenokoitai is used. When the OT was translated into the Greek, it was called the Septuagint, or LXX. When Lev. 20:13 was translated into the Greek for the LXX, the words arseno and koiten were used. Arsenokoitai is a combination of those two words: arseno (meaning man) and koite (mat or bed). These two verses are where it is currently translated as homosexual, which started in 1947 Since Leviticus 18 could be interpreted as pederasty versus homosexuality, Martin Luther used the pederastic opinion in his 1534 German interpretation of 1Cor 6 and 1Tim 1. He used the German word for boy molester, knabenschander, where the Greek used arsenokoitai in the two verses. The German versions kept this boy molestation interpretation until around 1798, when they also included Sodomite and buggerer along with pederasty. Something to note about the word ‘arsenokoitai’ is that it is a hapax legomenon, which means that it is not used anywhere else in Greek literature. It literally only exists in the LXX for Lev. 18, and in the NT in the two passages mentioned. The word as Paul wrote it is the noun ‘man-bed’. As the word itself is so vague, with no other usage to determine what it definitely means, it could mean pederasty, as Martin Luther, believed, or it could mean any sexual promiscuity in some sense. There is also other hermeneutics (ways to interpret) which could give the word a spiritual sense. Additionally, the classical Greek had two words, ἐρώμενος (passive male sex partner) and ἐραστής(lit. Love-with, courted the ἐρώμενος) which were the common terms for those in a typical homosexual relationship, so for the term ‘arsenokoitai’ referring to homosexuality, there’s no concrete basis for what Paul was speaking against. So homosexuality in these passages are very debatable, but what about the effeminate of the same passage in 6:9? Where the Bible mentions a person being ‘effeminate’, the Greek word there is debated as to how it should be translated in the English. For instance, in Matt 11:8, Luke 7:25, the word μαλακός, malakos is translated as ‘soft’ concerning the types of clothing worn in a king’s palace, or what type John the Baptist’s clothes weren’t. The translation of ‘effeminate’ is a stretch by any hermeneutic. So when 1Cor 6 says that ‘malakos’ shall not inherit the kingdom of God, what does that mean? Does it mean that people who wear finery don’t experience a true spiritual experience in this age? Does it mean that people who aren’t physically strong (aka physically soft), or maybe not of a strong moral character (ethically soft)? There are many ways to interpret this word ‘soft’, but the modern English versions use effeminate, which is a biased opinion. But I digress. Cont.