The question is: Were the books of the Apocrypha accepted in Orthodoxy and Catholicism *before* the Protestant Reformation? The answer is: There was serious controversy in both traditions.
So what I meant was that before Luther stated that the Apocrypha was not Scripture per se (although he also said that it is very good to read, and he put the Catholic Apocrypha in a section between the OT and NT)—*before* all that, it was quite normal for Church leaders and theologians in Catholicism to *dispute* about the status of the Apocrypha. The best example of this is the author of the Vulgate, Jerome. Claude informs me about other skeptics of the Apocrypha from the Western Church, including Latin father Hilary of Poitiers, Rufinus of Aquileia, Pope Gregory the Great (!), Bede (!), Nicholas of Lyra, and Cardinal Cajetan—in 1532! The standard medieval biblical commentary used in universities, the Glossa Ordinaria, followed Jerome's classification. This was *not* a fringe position.
FWIW—I also had to ask Claude about the Orthodox tradition. Here the position of "do respect but do not canonize" is endorsed by these:
Athanasius of Alexandria (39th Festal Letter, 367) is probably your strongest single example. He lists the OT canon following the Hebrew books, then says Wisdom, Sirach, Esther (additions), Judith, and Tobit are "not indeed included in the Canon, but appointed by the Fathers to be read." That's almost exactly Luther's later position, from the man who championed Nicene orthodoxy.
Cyril of Jerusalem (Catechetical Lectures 4.35, c. 350) instructs catechumens to read "the twenty-two books of the Old Testament"—the Hebrew numbering—and says explicitly, "Read none of those that are not read in the churches."
Gregory of Nazianzus composed a poetic catalogue of Scripture (Carmen 1.1.12) that excludes the deuterocanonicals entirely.
Amphilochius of Iconium (Iambics for Seleucus) does the same, and even notes that some dispute Esther—showing how live the canon question was.
John of Damascus (8th century, Exact Exposition 4.17) lists the OT following the Hebrew canon, mentioning Wisdom and Sirach as "admirable" but outside the numbered canon.
Origen and Melito of Sardis (c. 170) both give early canon lists that essentially follow the Hebrew books, Melito's being one of the earliest we have—he traveled to Palestine specifically to settle the question.
Thus saith Claude.
But back to Luther. He took a definite stand because he was committed, on principle, to reclaiming the original Christianity from the various ways in which it had, even by 1517, been twisted by Catholicism. Thus he was committed to Sola Scriptura; but this then raises the question, "What is Scripture?" So he took a stand on that question of the status of the Apocrypha. The Catholics DID NOT similarly take a stand on the question until the Council of Trent.
Similarly, I am informed (again by Claude) that Orthodoxy settled the matter in 1672 by the Synod of Jerusalem, in direct response to the Protestant reformers. There is still variation, however. "The Russian tradition under Philaret of Moscow (1839 catechism) distinguished canonical from non-canonical books in a way that echoes the older patristic pattern."
I didn't understand your reply. Please elaborate.