Machine work progressively replaces value in the reproduction of labour-power to restore periodic profitability, capital hoards this productive capacity.

Joined December 2018
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If Marxism is dialectical materialism, then how does machine work become unpaid labour time whilst never breaking Marx’s axioms plus the scientific axiom 4.? 1.Labour = human work specifically: Capital Vol. 1, Chapter 7:
If you want to read my claim in these threads as 1 &/or read Grok’s response, scroll to bottom to my last input. x.com/i/grok/share/61202dcfc…
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The extra 3 shillings the capitalist receives is clear profit. Nearly the same as what the worker gets for her 6 hours concrete labour.
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Once the capitalist installs the new machine that spins 42 yards in the 6 hrs of our workers labour time, the capitalist gets back more than the worker’s wage in profit. (4 shillings & sixpence more than before the machine entered production)
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Our capitalist can sell his yarn at 4 pence a yard. If he does that he gets 1 pound, 8 shillings & 4 pence. He pays his worker 4 shillings & is left with 1 pound, 4 shillings & 4 pence. (24s & 4p) Now everyone wants to buy his yarn.
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Totally wrong working here, should read: “Our capitalist can sell his yarn at 10 pence a yard. If he does that he gets 1 pound, 10 shillings. He pays his worker 4 shillings & is left with 1 pound, 6 shillings. (26s) Now everyone wants to buy his yarn.”
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Key post.
Replying to @wrongwan
Unpaid work ≠ unpaid labour.
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Thermodynamics says: unpaid work ≠ unpaid labour. That’s not my opinion, it’s science.
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Machines equal labour free stuff. It’s that basic. Capitalists get free stuff to sell.
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The capital required to create the machine is created out of thin air by banks - on the proviso future sales pays it back. Once the capital is repaid, capitalists literally get free stuff to sell.
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